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Should the batter be credited with an RBI when runners on 3B and 2B both score due to a past ball / or wild pitch and subsequent throwing error on the catcher to 3B?

by Steve
(Collegeville, PA)

Steve asked: Batter is up, no outs with runners on 3B and 1B.

On the first pitch, runner on 1B advances to 2B, due to defenseive indifference, which now puts runners on both 3B and 2B with No outs.

2 pitches later, the ball gets away from the catcher and the runner on 3B breaks for home and scores.

the runner on 2B, delays and then heads towards 3B and the catcher throws to 3B and the ball gets away from the third baseman and he then scores.

One of the asst coaches seems to think the batter should be credited for 2 RBIs. I didn't think that was the correct scoring decision, but since there was less than 2 outs, in hindsight, i'm not so sure? thanks for the help!


Rick answered: Steve, thank you for your question.

Rule 9-3-5...A run batted in is credited to the batter when a runner scores because of:





  • Base hit.





  • A sacrifice.





  • Any put out.





  • A forced advance.





  • An error, provided there are not 2 outs and that action is such that the runner on 3B would have scored even if there had been no error.







My interpretation of the rule is that the runner on 3B scores on the passed ball, no rbi credited. The second runner going from second to third would not have scored if the catcher had not made the throw, resulting in the error, which permitted the second runner to score. No rbi for that run either, as he would not have scored had the catcher just held the ball.

Yours in baseball,

Rick





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Oct 04, 2018
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Does the at bat matter? NEW
by: CS

What if the batter then hits a home run. They would have scored anyways. It’s not the batters fault they scored before he could hit a bomb.

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